Q.1) Consider the following activities

1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field

2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes

3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

We have covered the current affairs related to the application of drone topic in December 2019, January 2020, July 2020 and August 2020 Current Affairs Magazine.

Some of the excerpts from our Current Affairs Magazine

Odisha’s Athagarh Forest Division has started casting seed balls (or bombs) inside different reserve forest areas to enrich food stock for wild elephants.

The Haryana Forest Department has started aerial seeding across the state on a pilot basis using drone.

Directorate General of Civil Aviation’s (DGCA), India’s civil aviation authority has given approval to the applications of Google-backed hyperlocal delivery startup Dunzo and Bengaluru-based drone maker Throttle Aerospace Systems to test long-range and autonomous drone use.

Ministry of Home Affairs deploys drones to destroy hidden marijuana plantations

 

Q.5) What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?

1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.

2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.

3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.

Select the correct answers using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

We have covered the current affairs related to the application of drone topic in January 2020, February 2020 and July 2020 Current Affairs Magazine.

Some of the excerpts from our Current Affairs Magazine

Pneumonia caused by bacteria is easily preventable with vaccines. 3 doses of the primary vaccine (Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) to prevent it are recommended.

The government is planning for the nationwide rollout of Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) under the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP).

The Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) has approved the first fully indigenously developed conjugate vaccine for pneumonia- Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Conjugate Vaccine.

 

Q.14) Wellesley established the fort William College at Calcutta because

a) He was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so

b) He wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India

c) He wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment

d) He wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India

We have covered the question in our Modern History Test

With the reference to educational institutions during rule in India, consider the following pairs: Institution : Founder

1.Sanskrit College at Banaras : William Jones

2.Calcutta Madrasa : Warren Hastings

3.Fort William College : Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given below is/are correct?

Explanation

Lord Richard Colley Wellesley (NOT ARTHUR WELLESLEY) took the first step for training of Civil Servants when he founded the Fort William College, in Calcutta in November 1800 where the Civil Servants of the Company were to receive training in the literature, science and languages of India.

Q.17) In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer is used for

a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm

b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells

c) development of stem cells into functional embryos

d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

 

With reference to the difference between Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and Nuclear DNA, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Most human cells contain hundreds of copies of mtDNA genomes, whereas there are only two copies of the nuclear DNA in the human cells.
2. Nuclear DNA comes from both parents, whereas the mitochondrial DNA comes only from the mother.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q.20) With reference to “Blockchain Technology”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect. But which no single user controls

2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency  only.

3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1 and 3 only

 

Consider the following statements with respect to “Blockchain technology”:

1. It is a specific type of data structure which can be used to transact across nodes or participants.

2. It is a centralized technology which can greatly save the cost and improve the efficiency.

Which of the following codes below given is/are correct?

 

A blockchain is a specific type of data structure which can be used to transact across nodes or participants.

The ownership rights are recorded in cryptographically stored and linked blocks which contain records of ownership of assets among the participants that can remain anonymous.

The blockchain technology generally has key characteristics of decentralization, persistency, anonymity and auditability.

With these traits, blockchain can greatly save the cost and improve the efficiency.

 

Blockchain topic has been also covered in our December 2019, January 2020, February 2020, March 2020 Current Affairs

 

Q.21) A Parliamentary System of Government is on in which

  1. All political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
  2. The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by them
  3. The Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
  4. The Government is chosen by the Parliament but can not be removed by its before completion of a fixed term

 

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

A. The executive and legislature work independently.

B. It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

C. The executive remains responsible to the legislature.

D. The head of the government cannot be changed without election.

 

Q.22) Which part of the Constitution of India declares the Ideal of Welfare State?

a) Directive Principles of State Policy

b) Fundamental Rights

c) Preamble

d) Seventh Schedule

 

With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
1. It aims to establish a welfare state.
2. It seeks to promote social and economic democracy.
3. Supreme Court cannot declare an act of Parliament ultra vires if it violates any of the principles of DPSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are the guidelines or principles given to the federal institutes governing the state of India, to be kept in citation while framing laws and policies.
These provisions, contained in Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered irrefutable in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country.
The principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland relate to social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative matters.
Directive Principles are classified under the following categories economic and socialistic, political and administrative, justice and legal, environmental, protection of monuments and peace and security.

Q.23) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
  2. The Constitution of India provides for Judicial review to safeguard the citizens; liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

There are numerous questions in our Polity Test series related to Judicial Review and Basic Structure.

There is no mention of the term “Basic Structure” anywhere in the Indian Constitution.

 

Q.26) The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part

d) a part of thee constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

 

Consider the following statements with regard the Preamble to Indian Constitution:
1. Its provisions are enforceable in courts of law.
2. It is not a source of power to the legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q.27) “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

a) a loan system of the World Bank

b) one of the operations of a Central Bank

c) a credit system granted by WTO to ito members

d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members

 

Which among the following comprises to make Forex reserve of India:

1. Foreign currency assets
2. Gold
3. IMF reserve tranche
4. Special Drawing Rights of IMF

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

The Forex Reserves (‘foreign exchange reserves’) of an economy is its ‘foreign currency assets’ added with its gold reserves, SDRs (Special Drawing Rights) and Reserve Tranche in the IMF.

 

Q.28) With reference to the provision contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They shall be enforceable by courts.

2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.

3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 

Which of the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy is/are correct?
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar medanta cannot be stored for more than three months.

2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations fro sharing of Aadhaar data.

3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.

4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India

Which of the  statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 4 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 only

 

Aadhaar as a current affair topic has been covered under our Monthly Current Affairs notes

 

Q.32) Rajya sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha in

a) the matter of creating new All India Services

b) amending the Constitution

c) the removal of the government

d) making cut motions

 

Which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Article 368 deals with Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure thereof.

2. A Bill for the purpose of Amendment of the Constitution can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

 

Under Article 368(2), Parliament can amend the Constitution by passing a Bill in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures.

The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.

Each House must pass the bill separately.

 

With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education etc.

2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations

3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.

4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1,2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 4 only

 

Consider the following statements with respect to MPLADS Scheme:

1. It is a central sector scheme.

2. Its aim is to provide funds to MPs to execute certain developmental projects to meet the urgent needs of their constituents.

3. Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry to implement the scheme.

Which of the following codes below given is/are correct?

 

Q.38) Other than Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the constitution of India reflect-reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Right (1948)?

1. Preamble

2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Consider the following statements:

1. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 44th Amendment in 1976

2. Article 51A brings the Indian Constitution into conformity with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

There is reference to such duties in international instruments such as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and Article 51A brings the Indian Constitution into conformity with these treaties.

 

Q.54) With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements :

  1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
  2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
  3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Consider the following statements regarding Fertilizers subsidy in India:

1. Nutrient Based Subsidy Rates for P&K Fertilizers are approved by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.

2. Urea is not subsidised under Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

Q.56) Siachen Glacier is situated to the

(a) East of Aksai Chin

(b) East of Leh

(c) North of Gilgit

(d) North of Nubra Valley

 

Siachen Glacier, one of the world’s longest mountain glaciers, is part of :

 

Himalayas

Ladakh

Zaskar

Karakoram

 

Siachen Glacier, one of the world’s longest mountain glaciers, lying in the Karakoram Range system of Kashmir near the India–Pakistan border, extending for 44 mi (70 km) from north-northwest to south-southeast.

It has a number of fast-flowing surface streams and at least 12 medial moraines.

It is the source for the 50-mi-long Nubra River, a tributary of the Shyok, which is part of the Indus River system.

 

Q.58) Consider the following statements :

1. 36% of India 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).

2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.

3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

Recently, the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) notified Water Conservation Fee (WCF) for extracting groundwater. Which of the following has/have been exempted from paying WCF?
1. Agriculture sector
2. Defence establishments
3. All Individual households
4. Packaged drinking water Units
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the country.
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has revised the guidelines for groundwater extraction and introduced the concept of water conservation fee (WCF).
The agriculture sector, Defence establishments and users who don’t use electricity to extract water have been granted an exemption.
Individual households that draw groundwater using a delivery pipe of a greater than 1” diameter would need to pay a WCF. The industries that use groundwater for packaged drinking water would also need to pay WCF.

Q.59) Consider the following statements :

1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.

2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.

3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

Consider the following statements regarding Jet Streams.

1.Jet streams are narrow bands of strong winds that flow over thousands of kilometres predominantly from east to west.

2.Major jet streams are found near the upper levels of the atmosphere, around 9 to 16 km from the earth’s surface.

3.In India, the Tropical jet stream influences the formation and duration of the summer monsoon.

4.Jet streams aid in the faster travelling of Aircrafts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

Q.60) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat” ?

(a) Corbett

(b) Ranthambore

(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

(d) Sunderbans

 

Consider the following statements regarding Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve:

1. It is the largest tiger reserve in India.

2. It is located in Andhra Pradesh

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

Due to efforts by the Tiger Conservation Foundation (TCF), the number of tigers in the Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR) in Andhra Pradesh has gone up.

About Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve is the largest tiger reserve in India. The reserve spreads over five districts, Kurnool District, Prakasam District, Guntur District, Nalgonda District and Mahbubnagar district.

The total area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 km2 (1,439 sq mi).The core area of this reserve is 1,200 km2 (460 sq mi). The reservoirs and temples of Srisailam are major attraction for many tourists and pilgrims.

It is the largest tiger reserve forest in India.

The area consists mostly of Nallamala Hills but varies from plains to precipitous cliffs. More than 80 per cent of the area is gently rolling to hilly.

The perennial water sources are generally located in the valleys and the plateaus suffer from acute scarcity for water during summer.

The Krishna river cuts its basin almost 200 m (660 ft) deep over a distance of 130 km (81 mi) through the reserve. There are several waterfalls in the reserve such as the Ethipothala Falls, Pedda Dukudu, Gundam and Chaleswaram.

 

Q.63) What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture ?

  1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
  2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
  3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Consider the following statements with respect to Zero Tillage:

1. Zero tillage is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation

2. Residual moisture can be effectively utilized in Zero Tillage

Which of the following below given codes are correct?

 

Zero tillage is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation and disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.

Zero tillage not only reduce the cost of cultivation it also reduces the soil erosion, crop duration and irrigation requirement and weed effect which is better than tillage. Zero Tillage (ZT) also called No Tillage or Nil Tillage.

Advantages of Zero Tillage:

  • Reduction in the crop duration and thereby early cropping can be obtained to get higher yields.
  • Reduction in the cost of inputs for land preparation and therefore a saving of around 80%.
  • Residual moisture can be effectively utilized and the number of irrigations can be reduced.
  • Dry matter and organic matter get added to the soil.
  • Environmentally safe – Greenhouse effect will get reduced due to carbon sequestration.
  • No-tillage reduces the compaction of the soil and reduces the water loss by runoff and prevents soil erosion.
  • As the soil is intact and no disturbance is done, No-Till lands have more useful flora and fauna.

 

Q.64) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels ?

1. Cassava

2. Damaged wheat grains

3. Groundnut seeds

4. Horse gram

5.Rotten potatoes

6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

 

Consider the following statements regarding National Policy on Biofuels – 2018.

1. Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum and Starch containing materials like Corn.

2. The policy bans the use of food grains for production of ethanol, to ensure food security.

3. The Policy encourages biodiesel production from non-edible oilseeds and Used Cooking Oil.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

• The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.

 

With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:

1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps.

2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Solar Power: Kusum Scheme has been extensively covered in our Test Series and Current Affairs Magazine

 

Q.75) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members G20?

a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand

c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam

d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

 

With respect to “G20”, consider the following statements:
1. It is an informal forum for international cooperation on financial issues to ensure “financial stability”.
2. It comprises 19 countries plus the EU and since 1999 G20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors had been meeting regularly.
Which of the following given statements is/are correct?
It comprises 19 countries plus the EU. These countries are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, UK and USA. Hence both statements are correct.

Q.77) Consider the following statements:

  1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
  2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does
  3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

 

Consider the following statements about Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation.

1. The weight of food in CPI is far higher than in WPI.

2. Both capture price changes of services.

3. Both are released by Central Statistical Organisation (CSO).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 

The WPI and the CPI baskets are different, both at the weightage assigned to food, fuel and manufactured items as well as at the broken-down level of these segments. The weight of food in CPI is higher than in WPI.

The WPI inflation does not capture price changes of services but the CPI does.

 

Q.78) Consider the following pairs:

River Flows into

1. Mekong – Andaman Sea

2. Thames – Irish Sea

3. Volga – Caspian Sea

4. Zambezi – Indian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

 

Mekong River runs through

1.China
2.Myanmar
3.Thailand
4.Cambodia
5.Vietnam

Select the correct answer code:

 

Mekong River is a trans-boundary river in Southeast Asia. From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam.

It flows to South China Sea

Consider the following statements:

  1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
  2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MSP through various scheme has been extensively covered in both Test Series and Current Affairs Magazine

 

Q.80) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. Commercial Paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note.

2. ‘Certificate of Deposit is a long-term of India to a corporation.

3. ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.

4. “Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Call Money Rate’.

1. Call money rate is the rate at which short term funds are borrowed and lent in the
money market.

2. The duration of the call money loan is 7 days.

 

Call money rate is the rate at which short term funds are borrowed and lent in the money market.

 

 

Consider the following statements:

1. Commercial Paper (CP) is a product offered by banks that provides an interest rate premium in exchange for a deposit untouched for a predetermined period of time.

2. A Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a short-term debt instrument issued by companies to raise funds generally for a time period up to one year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

Commercial Paper (CP) is a short-term debt instrument issued by companies to raise funds generally for a time period up to one year.

 

Q.83) The term ‘West Texas Intermediate, sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of

a) Crude oil

b) Bullion

c) Rare earth elements

d) Uranium

 

According to the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC), the Indian basket of crude oil represents a derived basket comprising

1.West Texas Intermediate (WTI)

2.Brent Blend

3.Dubai Crude

Select the correct answer using the code below:

 

Q.93) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

1. Nagarhole National Park

2. Papikonda National Park

3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 

Papikonda National Park which was recently in news is located at which of the following states?

Tamil Nadu

Andhra Pradesh

Telangana

Kerala

Papikonda National Park is located in the Papi Hills in East Godavari and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh, and covers an area of 1,012.86 km square.

 

With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are

a) Birds

b) Primates

c) Reptiles

d) Amphibians

 

‘Sri Lankan Frogmouth’ is a?

Mammal

Reptile

Bird

Insect

 

Q.95) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

a) Kanha National Park

b) Manas National Park

c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

 

Consider the following statements with reference to the Kanha Tiger Reserve:
1. It is a national park and a Tiger Reserve located in the state of Maharashtra.
2. The Park is respected globally for saving the Barasingha from near extinction and also the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot ‘Bhoorsingh the Barasingha’.
3. The forest of the Kanha Tiger Reserve was originally inhabited by two indigenous tribes of Central India, the Gonds and the Baigas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The park has a significant population of Royal Bengal Tiger, leopards, the sloth bear, Barasingha and Indian wild dog. The Park is respected globally for saving the Barasingha from near extinction.
It is also the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot, ‘Bhoorsingh the Barasingha’.

Q 99) Consider the following statements:

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.

2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment

3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

 

Which of the following statement is/are correct about Fly Ash?
1. Fly ash contains heavy metals
2. Fly ash can be used to make bricks